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Last week we considered the possibility that the early English translators understood "the word" in John 1:1-4 within the scope of God’s powerful speech and self-expression because they translated the pronouns "it" instead of "He" and "Him." Doesn't this suggest that they understood "word" as something other than a person.
1 John 1:1 similarly uses "non-personal relative pronouns: "That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, concerning the Word of life-". English translators normally do not use “that and which” when they clearly have a person in mind. We would naturally expect something like: “He who was from the beginning…” rather than: “That which was from the beginning…”
It is interesting that the original manuscripts of the Greek New Testament were written entirely in uppercase letters. The Greek word "logos" appears approximately 330 times in the New Testament. It is capitalized as “Word” only in those verses where many translators understand it as a title for Christ: John 1:1, John 1:14, 1 John 1:1, and Revelation 19:13. Since the earliest Greek manuscripts were written without distinctions between upper and lower case letters, the decision to capitalize “Word” is an interpretive choice made by translators rather than something explicitly indicated in the original text. To a certain degree, capitalization is already interpreting the passage for the reader.
Consider Luke 1:2: "just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word have delivered them to us," Why wouldn't they translate this use of logos as "the Word"? They were eyewitnesses of him from the beginning!
Most Christians would readily agree with Wayne Grudem’s statement in Chapter 1 of "Systematic Theology" that “beliefs must be based on Scripture, not human authorities or traditions.” Yet, it is noteworthy that he begins Chapter 2 with the heading, “The Word of God as a Person: Jesus Christ.” Once that assumption is made at the outset, it becomes natural to capitalize “Word” whenever "logos" appears in passages such as John 1:1. The capitalization of “Word” is not derived from the Greek text itself but reflects an interpretive decision made by translators and theologians.
Dr Grudem goes on to say: "these verses (and perhaps 1 John 1:1) are the only instances where the Bible refers to God the Son as 'the Word' or 'the Word of God,' so this usage is not common." Could there be a better reason why his usage (interpretation) is not common? Perhaps the meaning of "word" in 1 John 1:1 also fits within the scope of God’s powerful speech and self-expression ?
If beliefs must be based on Scripture, and not on human authorities or traditions, why not stick to Scripture alone, Dr Grudem? Where is "God the Son" in the Bible. If I could just read it in one verse. I would proclaim it. But, it is not there. Anywhere. It comes from human authorities and tradition, not the Bible. If you find the phrase "God the Son" in your Bible, please let me know.
Mark Rohde can be reached at marklrohde@icloud.com.