Bible Truth or Tradition: Why did Tyndale and other early English translators say: ‘All things were made by it?’
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William Tyndale believed that if ordinary people could read the Bible for themselves, they would be able to evaluate the teachings of the Church directly. This conviction challenged the church's authority system and empowered individual believers to examine Scripture for themselves. The prophet Jeremiah said: "Your words were found, and I ate them, and your words became to me a joy and the delight of my heart." The Lord Jesus Christ said: "Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that comes from the mouth of God." I think being able to read the "word" of God for ourselves is a good thing.
In previous articles, we briefly examined how 1 Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16, and Hebrews 1:2 relate to the new creation, the coming Kingdom, and the mystery revealed in Christ. In each case, the immediate context points not to the original creation beginning with Genesis 1:1, but to God’s redemptive purpose accomplished through His Son. Yet these same passages are frequently cited, including by Wayne Grudem in "Systematic Theology," as proof texts for the Genesis creation account. John 1:3 is another passage in Grudem’s list, and "it" deserves careful examination.
In 1526, William Tyndale became the first person to translate the New Testament into English directly from the Greek text. The following examples show how he and other early English translators rendered John 1:3a:
Tyndale (1526): “All things were made by it”
Coverdale (1535): “All things were made by the same”
Matthew’s Bible (1537): “All things were made by it”
Great Bible (1539): “All things were made by it”
Bishops’ Bible (1568): “All things were made by it”
The third person neuter pronoun "It" refers back to "Word" (a masculine noun in Greek) in verse 1. Most modern translations read, “All things were made by him” or “through him.” This is a translator's decision. Mainstream Christianity generally reads John 1:14 and concludes that the Word described in John 1:1-4 is the preexistent Son prior to his incarnation. Correct or not, that conclusion should not be based merely on the fact that the Greek noun "logos" (translated "word" or "the word" many times in the Gospel of John) is grammatically masculine. Greek grammar requires masculine pronouns for "logos," just as it requires feminine pronouns for sophia (wisdom) and neuter pronouns for pneuma (spirit). The question is not what grammatical gender the noun possesses, but how the author intended His readers to understand the meaning of “the word” within the context where it is written?
This raises an important question: Why did Tyndale and then other early English translators use the pronoun "it" if they believed "the word" was the preexistent Jesus? Is it possible that they understood "the word" within the scope of God’s utterance, declaration, wisdom, purpose, or self-expression? After all, we read "God said" 10 times in the first chapter of Genesis when He created the heavens and the earth and all the host of them (Genesis 2:1). Did they just refrain from importing a personal masculine pronoun into verses 1-4 because the English noun "word" did not require one? Or, could it be that they understood "the word" in these opening verses differently than many later readers have assumed?
Mark Rohde can be reached at marklrohde@icloud.com.